[Church_of_Christ] Re: Truth for the World
To Brian, Clay, Dan, Ray, and all the rest:
Brian had said that I intended to unsubscribe from the group. That is true, but I couldn't figure out how at the moment, so I never did. Am I allowed to repost, reworded slightly? Because I never got a glimpse of an answer or acknowledgement.
"Besides, I was and still am involved in two formal and written debates with Baptist preachers, so maybe Clay or anyone else can use their vast knowledge of the Greek and English to answer the following." I can spot the inconsistencies, but they are subtle, and these people are not little unscholarly, rookie, one-by-fours without a clue. So here are his last statements - if someone can formulate a suitable response, I'll use it. If someone has a suggestion, I'll use it. Otherwise, I'll just respond myself - just as I've done hundreds of times. I ask to repost because nobody even attempted an answer - that's a first.
Concerning Acts 2:38:
"The direct object, ye is a partitive genitive, yet it is part of a prepositionary phrase so it has no influence on the subject and verb of the second clause. The subject in the clause is one while every is an adjective. Everyone and every one are grammatically different in meaning. Many translations render the Greek word Eékastov" differently and so it is ambiguous. The compound infinitive everyone is equivalent to everybody so it can be a collective; therefore, it can be a appositional pronoun and have an antecedent. But (Acts 2:38) used the infinitive pronoun every one which refers to each one separately, so it can not be a singular or plural collective, nor can it be appositional of the subject ye. However, it is the antecedent of the subject ye but the written form is third person singular; therefore, is separate from the progression of events leading to ones salvation. Note: When you use the term appositional, do you mean that the pronoun or noun agrees in person and number with its antecedent? Now you made the comment that the Greek word Eékastov" could be translated as everyone or every one correct? Its true that the Church of Christ is not directly ignoring any Greek rule that I am aware of. But I do believe that they are going out of their way to find rules of exception (Many denominations cherry pick scriptures) rather then accept the simple process of salvation.
There are plenty of Greek rules that the Church of Christ tries to pawn of as exceptions in order to uphold their position on (Acts 2:38). First of all, they try to forge a way for the first clause and second clause to agree in both person and number by bringing up the genitive cases.
The partitive genitive case in the second clause no doubt applies to the pronoun ye which is the object (not the subject of the clause) of the preposition for, but does not constitute a change in the person and number associated with the subject every one. This is because Eekastov in the KJV translates to every one (More then one translation) which is the subject and is always third person singular. Actually if we want to get technical, one is the subject while every is an adjective. The modifying phrase for the remission of sins must be joined with the subject and verb of the first clause, ye repent because the verb remission is the singular subjective genitive of your sins which is second person plural."
Now, that's a direct quote from an ongoing written debate. It's fair to ask some of the bright lights in our group to point out his inconsistencies as well as his mistakes in the Greek. I'd love to be able to have assistance in my reply, because replying will be tedious for me - but second nature for members like Clay. I would also appreciate a structurally parallel sentence from either Sacred or profane writings. There is no rush - I have 24 hours in which to reply as per the rules.
Sincerely,
Brent Jobe, DVM
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