[Church_of_Christ] Re: Spiritual gifts
In the contrast that Paul makes in 1 Cor 13 affirming the end of
spiritual gifts, we are in the "face to face" part of the contrast.
--- In Church_of_Christ@
>
> heb12347 wrote:
>
> > Kent wrote:
> >> Perhaps the more appropriate question, as it comes from the context
> >> instead of from a jigsaw-puzzle type of approach, is: "Do I fully
> >> know, and am I fully known? Do I see distinctly, face-to-face?
> >
> > I am glad you brought this up because it is the stumblingblock that
> > often prevents understanding. The contrast in verse 12 is _1 Co
> > 13:12_ /"For now we see in a mirror, dimly, but then face to face.
Now
> > I know in part, but then I shall know just as I also am known."/
> > The first half of the verse is an allusion to an event in the OT -
> > Numbers 12 - and the contrast between how God's will was revealed to
> > Moses and how it was revealed to Miriam and Aaron. Miriam and Aaron
> > had complained that God spoke thru them too - v 2. God intervened.
God
> > told these two that when He speaks thru them (as thru a prophet) God
> > speaks in a vision, in a dream; no so with Moses, v 6. Further, "I
> > speak with him face to face (literally "mouth to mouth"), even
> > plainly, and not in dark sayings" v 8. Paul uses these same OT terms
> > in 1 Cor 13 to inform the Corinthians about the difference between
> > receiving God's revelation piecemeal (in part) and complete
(perfect).
> > When it is in part, it is as it was thru Aaron and Miriam, in "dark
> > sayings" (the Hebrew to Greek to English brings it out "as thru a
> > mirror _dimly_" or "in riddles" (literally in the Greek, see NASV
> > footnote); but then (when complete) "face to face", as God revealed
to
> > Moses. Now the point is Moses never literally revceived God's
> > revelation face to face literally. No man has seen God at any time!
It
> > is a simple expression that is intended to tell us that Moses
received
> > God's revelation much more clearly than Aaron and Miriam.
>
>
> Fascinating insight. I appreciate you sharing this with us.
>
> The contrast I see in Numbers 12 is a prophecy given by visions and
> dreams as opposed to one given clearly without riddles. Now Peter and
> Paul seem to be making the same contrast: Peter says the prophecy of
> Joel 2 is in effect as of Acts 2, which speaks of "visions and
dreams",
> and Paul says that the church at the time of his writing was waiting
for
> the day when they would see clearly without riddles.
>
> For me, my question still stands: "Do I fully know, seeing clearly
> without riddles? Or am I still wrestling with 'dark sayings'?
>
>
> --
> Kent
>
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